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2025 JN0-253 Latest Exam Vce - Question JN0-253 Explanations, Dumps Mist AI, Associate (JNCIA-MistAI) Discount - Slackernomics
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2) = $96,369,154.
The FRN component will be valued at par as we are at a point where the rate has just been reset, ie $100m.
The investor is paying the fixed rate, and is therefore short the bond. He/she is receiving LIBOR, and is therefore long the FRN. The value of the swap to the investor therefore is +$100,000,000-$96,369,154 =
$3,630,846
Detailed explanation:
An Interest Rate Swap exchanges fixed interest flows for floating rate flows. The floating rate leg is tied to some reference rate, such as LIBOR. The parties exchange net cash flows periodically. Conceptually, an interest rate swap is the combination of a fixed coupon bond and a floating rate note. The party receiving the fixed rate is long the fixed coupon bond and short the FRN, and the party receiving the floating rate is long the FRN and short the fixed coupon bond.
An interest rate swap can be valued as the difference between the two hypothetical bonds. FRNs sell for par at issue time as they pay whatever the current rate is, subject to periodic resets. Therefore immediately after a payment is made on a swap, the value of the FRN component is equal to its par value. The bond can be valued by discounting its cash flows. The difference between the two represents the value of the swap. When the swap is entered into, the fixed rate leg is set in such a way that the value of the hypothetical bond is equal to that of the FRN, and therefore the swap is valued at zero. The rate at which the fixed rate leg is set is called the swap rate. Over its life, market rates change and the value of the fixed coupon bond equivalent in our swap diverges from par (whereas the FRN stays at par - at least right after payments are exchanged and the new floating rate is set for the next period). Thus the swap acquires a non-zero value.
There are two ways to value a swap. If interest rates for the future are known, the bond and the FRN can be valued and their difference will be equal to the value of the swap. Sometimes, the current swap rates are known. In such a case, the swap can be valued by imagining entering into an opposite swap at the new swap rate, which will leave a residual fixed cash flow for the remaining life of the swap. This residual cash flow can be valued and that represents the value of the swap. For example, if a 4 year swap was entered into exchanging an annual fixed 5% payment on a notional of $100m for a floating payment equal to LIBOR, and at the end of year 1 the swap rate is 6%, then the party paying fixed can choose to enter into a new swap to receive 6% and pay LIBOR. All cash flows between the old and the new swap will offset each other except a net receipt of 1% for the next 3 years. This cash flow can be valued using the current yield curve and represents the value of the swap.
NEW QUESTION: 4
What term is associated with development of a vacant urban or suburban site that was formerly developed but is now obsolete?
A. Leapfrog development
B. Brownfield development
C. Grayfield development
D. Greenfield development
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A. development on a site not used or underused due to real or perceived environmental issues
B. describes a type of sprawl where new development is not contiguous with pre-existing development but occurs some distance from it
C. development on a site never developed before
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which statement about OSPF multiaccess segments is true?
A. The backup designated router is elected first.
B. The router that sent the first hello message is elected first.
C. The designated and backup designated routers are elected at the same time.
D. The designated router is elected first.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the RFC, the BDR is actually elected first, followed by the DR. The RFC explains why:
"The reason behind the election algorithm's complexity is the desire for an orderly transition from Backup Designated
Router to Designated Router, when the current Designated Router fails. This orderly transition is ensured through the
introduction of hysteresis: no new Backup Designated Router can be chosen until the old Backup accepts its new
Designated Router responsibilities.
The above procedure may elect the same router to be both Designated Router and Backup Designated Router,
although that router will never be the calculating router (Router X) itself."
Reference: http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc2328.txt - Page 76
NEW QUESTION: 2
You can also create a kit without a VAS order at a work center. You can configure a work center where you also pack in such a way that you can confirm generated kits there. This process is suitable for the following cases
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question
Response:
A. You require detailed documentation of the kitting procedure in EWM
B. You are not performing kitting in one special kitting work center, but at a work center
where you cannot packing
C. You are not performing kitting in one special kitting work center, but at a work center where you are also packing
D. You do not require detailed documentation of the kitting procedure in EWM
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION: 3
An investor enters into a 4 year interest rate swap with a bank, agreeing to pay a fixed rate of 4% on a notional of $100m in return for receiving LIBOR. What is the value of the swap to the investor two years hence, immediately after the net interest payments are exchanged? Assume the current zero coupon bond yields for 1,
2 and 3 years are 5%, 6% and 7% respectively. Also assume that the yield curve stays the same after two years (ie, at the end of year two, the rates for the following three years are 5%, 6%, and 7% respectively).
A. $3,630,846
B. - $3,630,846
C. -$2,749,326
D. $2,749,326
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The swap can be valued by valuing the two individual components of the swap.
The fixed rate bond equivalent in the swap is valued at =4/1.05 + 104/(1.06
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