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NEW QUESTION: 1
HOTSPOT
A company plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant.
You have the following requirements:
Administrators must be able to access the Office 365 admin center.
Microsoft Exchange Online must be used as a Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) relay for a line-of-
business application that sends email messages to remote domains.
All users must be able to use the audio and video capabilities in Microsoft Lync 2013.
You need to configure the ports for the firewall.
Which port should you use for each application? Select the correct answer from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Transport Control Protocol(TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports, and Protocol Numbers are important to TCP/IP networking, intranets, and the Internet. Ports and protocol numbers provide access to a host computer. However, they also create a security hazard by allowing uninvited access. Therefore, knowing which port to allow or disable increases a network's security. If the wrong ports or protocol numbers are disabled on a firewall, router, or proxy server as a security measure, essential services might become unavailable.
TCP port 25 is used for simple mail transfer protocol which is used to e-mail routing between mail servers.
TCP port 443 is used for Audio, video and application sharing sessions as well as data sharing sessions.
RTP/UDP port 50020-50039 must be used for outbound video sessions.
RTP/UDP port 50000-50019must be used for outbound audio sessions.
NEW QUESTION: 2
An insurance company wants to increase sales by 15% and customer retention by 10% within 1 calendar year.
Various strategies to achieve this were considered and a restructure to the existing pricing model is selected to help achieve these goals.
A business analyst (BA) works with stakeholders such as actuaries, product specialists, sales staff, risk managers, and underwriters who agree to applying varying levels of discounts to customers based on:
*Total annual premium the customer has with the company (Financial worth)
*Time with the insurance company (Loyalty)
Various financial models are considered but the stakeholders agree that an initial applicable discount is determined based on the customer's overall premium:
The percentage of the maximum possible discount available to the customer is adjusted based on time with the company:
As the new pricing structure was being implemented, the chief executive officer (CEO) of the company wanted to change the premiums and associated discounts offered to customers. The BA investigated the cost, anticipated benefits and the length of time the change would likely take to complete before presenting the results back to the CEO.
What type of analysis has the BA just conducted?
A. Document
B. Impact
C. Capability
D. Market
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 3
A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative.
A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.
B. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.
C. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.
D. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Security controls can never be run 100% effective and is mainly observed as a risk mitigation strategy thus the gaps should be explained to all stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The CFO's main concern would be of a monetary nature as per the job description and not the IT security infrastructure or patch management per se.
B: The audit findings are not invalid since the audit actually found more missing patches on some systems.
C: The chief information security officer is the executive in the company that has the responsibility over information security in the organization; the CISO does not necessarily select controls.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John
Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 204, 213